The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Extent of God's Love

Hmmmm, there is quite a number of things which need comment so I'll try and make this as brief as I can. If there is an item you wish to pursue in more detail, methinks a new thread should be started to do that otherwise this could be a VERY long thread in itself.

1. Christ's death was a manifestation of God's LOVE to the elect for in Scripture the love of God is almost always connected with salvation. Put simply, who God loves he saves. More on this later in response to some of your proof texts.

2. Luke 2:14... there are two 'readings' in the manuscript evidence.
The first is:
Glory to God in the highest,
And on earth peace,
Good will toward men.

The second is:
Glory to God in the highest,
And on earth peace among men of (His) good pleasure.

Now, it is unfortunately necessary to bring in the original Greek here to make the case for the second reading. But that's not to be taken as an apology but simply good exegesis. The genitive (eudokias) means "of good pleasure". This is reference to God of whom the angels are glorying, i.e., in God's good pleasure. I cannot mean they are glorying in man. (cf. Matt 11:26; Lk 10:21; Eph 1:4, 5, 9)

Hendriksen is certainly worthy of quoting on this matter when he writes:

Accordingly, when spelled out in full, the interpretation favored by the second view is this: "And on earth peace among men whom God has graciously chosen." His sovereign delight rests on them. With them he is well pleased.

Now even those who cannot read Greek but are sound in doctrine know that the second of the two views, rather than the first, is in line with biblical doctrine. True and lasting peace is the portion of those, and only of those, whom God has graciously chose. See the following passages: Isa 26:3, 12; 32:17; 48:22 (= 57:21); Hag 2:9; Zech 9:10; Lk 1:78, 79; Jh 14:27; 16:33; Rom 5:1; Eph 2:14, 17; Col 1:20. The entire work of salvation, from start to finish, must be ascribed to him alone: Ps 32:1; 89:33, 34; 115:1; Ezek 20:14; Dan 9:19; Jh 6:44; 15:16; Eph 1:4; Rev 5:9-14; 15:3, 4.

3. John 3:16... This text has been thoroughly hashed over here in the past and by many others from various denominations. I have taught a class on this text as well and painstakingly went through every word, both in English and Greek to show that it does NOT nor CANNOT be made to mean what is popularly taught. For the sake of brevity, let me give you a literal translation of the Greek which hopefully will be sufficient:

For God loved the world in this manner in that He gave His only begotten Son so that (in order that) the believing ones (present participle of pisteow) would not perish but have eternal life.

The word "world" in this passage simply cannot be understood as every man woman and child. The context doesn't allow it. For more on understanding "cosmos" in its context here see:
- "THE WORLD" of John 3:16 Does Not mean "All men without exception"
- An Exposition of John 3:16, by John Owen

4. Titus 3:4... Again, I must defer to the Greek where the word "love" doesn't appear in either of its two biblical forms (philew or agapaw). The word translated by some English translations is actually "philanthropia from which we get our English word "philanthropy" which is a generosity, beneficence, kindness, etc. So, this text simply does not say nor teach that God loves all men. That God sheds His goodness upon all men is what the text says, e.g., Matt 5:45 where WE are to show love to others as evidence of our being children of God. But neither text says nor infers that God loves all men.

5. It would appear that at least one area that has led you to your view is trying to what you perceive as something that needs reconciliation; God's discriminating love and the free offer of the Gospel. The fact is, no reconciliation or apology is needed.

- The recipients of God's electing love has not been revealed, i.e., the roles in the Book of Life are part of God's secret (decretive will).
- The Gospel is the means by which the elect are called to repentance and faith.
- That Christ is able to save ALL who come to Him by faith is true in and of itself.
- The Holy Spirit, working in, with and through the preaching of the Word effectually draws the elect to Christ.
- We are commanded to preach Christ in the Gospel to ALL men. (do we need to question God's command to do so?)

It is absolutely true that "whosoever comes to Christ will not be cast out". And, it is no less true that ONLY those regenerated by the Spirit will come. So, the offer (actually a command; Acts 17:30) to repent and believe on Christ unto salvation is sincere. What hinders anyone from coming isn't a lack of sincerity on God's part toward them but rather their natural hatred of God. For more on the legitimacy of the Free Offer see here: Reformed Evangelism, by Morton Smith (scroll down to part B).

Now, now... there is nothing gymnastic about exegeting biblical passages using the original languages and grammar.

Your view, at best, diminishes the depth of God's love which always accomplishes that which He purposed, i.e., to save a people for Himself. The love of God is most exhibited in Christ Who wasn't sent to make salvation possible, but to actually secure the salvation of a definite number of people, (Matt 1:21; Eph 1:4; et al). To say, "God loves you" is synonymous to say, "God has saved you in Christ."

Secondly, your view diminishes, at best the atonement of the Lord Christ when you say it was "sufficient for all". IF by that you mean that IF God had intended to save all of mankind without exception, then Christ's blood would have been sufficient to atone for all. This is indisputable given that the Lord Christ was deity, and thus His sacrifice was of infinite value. BUT, if by this phrase you mean that Christ's death sufficiently atoned for every man, woman and child, but it is efficient for only the elect then you are embracing the heresy of Amyraldianism. For more on this topic, see here: Sufficient for All, by Jim Ellis.

Okay, enough!

In His grace,