Is Jesus Christ God?
who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped
This is a false statement.
Of course, Jesus Christ never thought such a thing, nor did the Holy Spirit inspire such a statement.
Using any definition of grasped, "Seized, embraced, held, or possessed, the statement is false.
John 17:17 thy word is truth
Thus, it is not Scripture.
The SUBJECT of that errant statement is a non issue, John 8:58 is true, He IS GOD, He need not REACH for, nor HOLD ON TO equality with God. HE COULD NOT RID HIMSELF OF EQUALITY WITH GOD! Taking on the form of a servant, could NOT CHANGE His equality with God!
John 10:30 I and my Father are one - they picked up stones to kill Him, they knew He was saying, "I am EQUAL with God."
Nor could the black man rid himself of equality with a white man.
Jesus KNOWS that His equality with God, takes nothing from God.
That is what He wanted men to KNOW!
The Words that state that, are Scripture.
Welcome to the Discussion Board.
Secondly, I am unfortunately confused by your statement above.
A more literal translation of the Greek of Phil 2:6 would be:
who, though existing in the form of God, did not count his existence-in-a-manner-equal-to-God something to cling toThe ASV (1901) also renders this text much in the same way:
who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped,The rendering of
harpagmos as the two examples above is more than legitimate as can be seen from
Arndt, Baur and Gingrich, p. 108 2a, and attested to by many reliable Greek scholars and commentators, e.g., Wm. B. Hendriksen (cf.
NT Commentary - Philippians, pp. 103, 129 {footnote #87}).
An explanation of why this is to be preferred can be offered if necessary.
Thirdly, what is most confusing is whether you are simply taking issue with the word
harpagmos, translated as "grasped", OR if you are disputing that Phil. 2:6 is inspired and should be disregarded as a true statement. The same question arises in regard to Joh 17:17, "
Sanctify them in the truth: thy word is truth". You wrote: "Thus, it is not Scripture." What is not Scripture? Is this referring to Phil 2:6? the translation of
harpagmos as "grasped"? or the Jh 17:17b "thy word is truth"? And/or are you attempting to defend a "partial inerrancy" view?
I'm sure I'm not the only one who is struggling with what you wrote and who would really like to have an explanation so that we can rightly understand you.
In His grace,
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