The Highway Forums General Discussion Open Forum What is your understanding of this passage?

My understanding of the passage is similar to what the others have written but with a few differences.

The context of this passage follows a rather detailed excursus by the Lord Christ concerning His warning against "false prophets". He distinguishes between two types of trees; one that bears bad fruit and the other that bears good fruit. And He summarizes this teaching with, "Therefore by their fruits ye shall know them.", in verse 20. And this "fruit" is that which is in conformity to the will of the Father. Jesus then explains the consequences and end of those who do not bear "good fruit" with an illustration, which is the passage under consideration.

1) On the last day, i.e., the day of Judgment... MANY, not few, but many will say. This should strike a note of fear in our hearts and cause everyone to examine themselves to see if they have a tendency to preen themselves over their alleged accomplishments, dedication, etc., toward God.

2) One's own personal assessment is not the standard by which one will be judged. The revealed will of God is the standard, which is exemplified in the person of Jesus Christ.

3) A couple of passages come to my mind as well that might bear upon this passage:

Simply put, both these passages emphasize the spiritual virtue of self-denial vs. self-exaltation. And, absolute moral perfection is required to be found acceptable before God. Stating it another way, only the imputed righteousness of the Lord Jesus Christ obtained through faith is how God will look favorably upon anyone.

4) Even the more ostentatious acts of men are without merit in regard to one's salvation, in and of themselves. It occurs to me that Jesus uses these examples to include those who occupy esteemed offices among men, e.g., Pharisees, Sadducees, priests, bishops, evangelists, missionaries, elders and deacons, et al, thus using the 'greater' to include all and lesser.

5) Motivation nor alleged purpose have any merit, in and of itself either. Notice that the those pleading state that they did all "in thy name".

6) So, what does count? Jesus answers them with, "I never knew you". A popular interpretation of this phrase is, "These people never loved Jesus." But I believe there is no warrant to come to that conclusion for the text is certainly clear enough in itself... Jesus never knew them. Now, what does Jesus mean by this? It cannot mean that He wasn't cognizant of their existence or the acts to which they mentioned. Why? because Jesus is God and is therefore omniscient. He knew them well enough to call them, "workers of iniquity". I believe that Jesus is using the word "knew" as a synonym for "love". Thus, the text would read, "I never loved you..." The Bible often uses the word "know" for "love", for example in Genesis 4:1, "And the man knew Eve his wife; and she conceived..." (cf. Gen 4:17,25). Another example is found in Amos 3:2, "you only have I known of all the families of the earth:", (cf. Deut 7:6; 10:15; Hos 4:23). In other words, Jesus is saying to the "many" you are not of my people whom the Father has set His love upon from all eternity and sent me to die for so as to reconcile you to God, and to whom the Spirit I sent dwelt within them.

7) Does this mean that "good works/fruit" are excluded? By no means, for Jesus made clear that one is known by the "fruit" produced. But the fruit has no merit whatsoever but rather it is indicative of one who is loved of God and therefore who has the Spirit of God working within them (Eph 2:10; Phil 2:12,13); the evidence of the electing, efficacious love of God manifest in one's life.