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If I may ask, how is it that the law is separated in scripture? Does the scripture specifically state such a separation between moral and ceremonial law? The reason I am asking is this, that James said, "For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become accountable for all of it. For he who said, "Do not commit adultery," also said, "Do not murder." If you do not commit adultery but do murder, you have become a transgressor of the law." (James 2:10-11) I have always, in my reading of scripture, understood the law to be one law, and that because there is no division, if one part is broken, then the whole is broken. Unfortunately, one cannot approach God's Word as if it were an encyclopedia, i.e., truth isn't alphabetized nor categorized for easy reference. The "Analogy of Faith", comparing Scripture with Scripture is how we derive any and all of God's revealed truth. Long before the Reformation, the Church recognized the tri-departmentalization of the LAW; civil, ceremonial and moral. The vast majority of Reformers and Puritans likewise held to this same view. And most every Reformed confession and catechism teaches this categorization of the law. There were some individuals and 'fringe' groups which disagreed of course. And in our day, there are those who also object to this biblical designation, e.g., those embracing NCT and many old-school Dispensationalists. A cursory reading of the Old Testament and New Testament will clearly show that the word "law" is used in various ways. If one uses, what I like to label a "psycho-statistical-mean" hermeneutic" (method of interpretation), then this error will surely result, i.e., giving a singular meaning to the word "law", e.g., moral. I have previously provided a link to a section of articles on The Highway that deal with this matter specifically. But let me provide you with a short list of the most salient articles which I would encourage you to spend time reading: Law: Civic, Ceremonial and MoralThe Moral Law: The Law not Abrogated by Christ to BelieversThe Moral Law and its Relation to BelieversThe Moral Law a Rule of ObedienceThe Law and the SaintThe Law and the GospelBecause of this, when I see Christ's finished work, I have seen the law of Moses being fulfilled in total because of this belief that the law is one law. And then Christ repeated aspects of the law, and in giving His New Covenant, gave us a law that is higher and greater than the law of Moses, a law which could only be fulfilled through the work of God the Holy Spirit in the life of a believer, the law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus, which has set us free from the law of sin and death. I perceive several errors in your statements above: 1. The "fulfillment of the law" by Christ is to be understood as Christ, as the second Adam, i.e., a substitute law keeper for those whom the Father sent Him to redeem, perfectly kept the Moral Law of God, that eternal law which expresses the very essence of God's holiness of which no man in his fallen state can keep and must keep from conception to his eventual death. In short, the law wasn't abrogated but confirmed as the standard of righteousness which all must possess, regardless of one's spiritual state. 2. The New Covenant did not introduce a "new law", but rather iterated that eternal moral law of God, for there can be no standard of moral perfection that surpasses God's own moral perfection, aka: holiness. The law (moral) delivered unto Moses on Mt. Sinai by the pre-incarnate Son of God is the same law (moral) which the incarnate Christ lived and taught throughout His earthly life and ministry. In the Sermon on the Mount Jesus didn't deliver a "new, superior" law but rather compared the distorted teaching of the law of the Pharisees, showing that their understanding was woefully deficient. What the Lord Christ taught was the depth of the moral Law given to Moses, which was in fact, a reiteration of the law which was written upon the heart of Adam and all his subsequent progeny. 3. Because God is One, in essence and harmony of will, and the Holy Spirit, being the third Person of the Godhead, guides and empowers all believers to embrace and strive after that perfect holiness; the keeping of the eternal moral law. However, the Holy Spirit does not provide an infallible obedience to the moral law, thus it cannot be said that believers have a "higher and greater law" which can be fulfilled by the indwelling Spirit. There is nowhere in Scripture that even intimates that perfection of the moral law is possible by a believer. Again, how can there be a "higher and greater law" than the perfect moral law given to Moses, since it is an expression of God's personal moral being? 4. Yes, Christ has set true believers free from "the law of sin and death", i.e., the curse of the law which is upon all who do not keep God's moral law perfectly. That perfect obedience was accomplished by Jesus Christ. And it is His "active obedience" which is imputed to true believers at the moment they embrace Him with saving faith. However, not only is the believer saved from the penalty of sin; the transgression of the moral law, but also he is saved from the power of sin, so that he is "free" to render obedience to it. (Romans 6 & 7) But, my original question still stands. Can someone show me in scripture that the law of Moses is separated in scripture into divisions of moral and ceremonial law? Thanks so much for this discussion. I hope it is iron sharpening iron. Answered already above via the provided links. 
simul iustus et peccator
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Charles Leiter, Paul Washer, Neonomianism & New Cov. Theology
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TamaraSlack
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Pilgrim
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