I am glad I studied this issue further.
Other than some of the things Pilgrim already mentioned of which I appreciate.

I thought I would give an example of other things I found.

Quote
Romans is not translated from the Aramaic but rather the Greek which literally says in Romans 1:27 - “men(ἄρσην) likewise abandoning the natural function of women being inflamed in their desire with one another.” No use of the word for homosexual, just the content of it.
The Old Testament passages in Leviticus also are not translated from the Aramaic but rather the Hebrew.
22 You shall not lie with a male(זָכָר) as with a woman; it is an abomination. (Lev. 18:22) (see similar in Lev. 20:13, “if a man (אִישׁ) lies with a male (זָכָר) as with a woman it is an abomination”)
The Greek Old Testament (LXX) translates the word male using (ἄρσην), the same Greek term used in Romans meaning ‘male’.

Those who try to argue for pedophila use an argument surrounding the actual terms for homosexuality (ἀρσενοκοίτης & μαλακός) seek to use extra biblical arguments for etymology to make a case that is relatively new and has never been an argument before modern times.
There are no end to these types of arguments and doesn’t get around the context of the text which in the OT and NT seem to be pretty clear.