In 1 John 2:2, there is the word "propitiation". According to Strong's, the Greek word can mean "expiation" or "propitiation" or simply "atoning sacrifice". Since this is the case, I have a few questions.
1) If there is such a large difference, as it seems to be debated heavily in theological circles, among these 3 phrases, why is the same Greek word used? According to Strong's, "expiation" and "propitiation" come from the same word (hilasmos)
2) According to A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Third Edition. Revised and Edited by Fredrick William Danker, hilasmos means "appeasement necessitated by sin, expiation
" or "instrument for appeasing, sacrifice to atone, sin-offering
". "Propitiation" is found in a different word entirely (hilaskomai). This being the case, is "propitiation" an accurate translation of the word in 1 John 2:2?
3) Why is there a shift from hilasmos meaning "propitiation" and
"expiation" to it just meaning "expiation" and a different word for "propitiation"?
4) This is my last question. What are some scholarly sources that deal with the Greek of these verses online and otherwise?
I ask these questions because I have an exegetical paper to write for my Greek class and I decided that I'd use 1 John 2:1-2.
My little children, I am writing you these things so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father--Jesus Christ the righteous One. He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only for ours, but also for those of the whole world. (1 John 2:1-2 HCSB)