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#29539 Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:23 PM
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In 1 John 2:2, there is the word "propitiation". According to Strong's, the Greek word can mean "expiation" or "propitiation" or simply "atoning sacrifice". Since this is the case, I have a few questions.

1) If there is such a large difference, as it seems to be debated heavily in theological circles, among these 3 phrases, why is the same Greek word used? According to Strong's, "expiation" and "propitiation" come from the same word (hilasmos)

2) According to A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Third Edition. Revised and Edited by Fredrick William Danker, hilasmos means "appeasement necessitated by sin, expiation" or "instrument for appeasing, sacrifice to atone, sin-offering". "Propitiation" is found in a different word entirely (hilaskomai). This being the case, is "propitiation" an accurate translation of the word in 1 John 2:2?

3) Why is there a shift from hilasmos meaning "propitiation" and "expiation" to it just meaning "expiation" and a different word for "propitiation"?

4) This is my last question. What are some scholarly sources that deal with the Greek of these verses online and otherwise?

I ask these questions because I have an exegetical paper to write for my Greek class and I decided that I'd use 1 John 2:1-2.

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My little children, I am writing you these things so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father--Jesus Christ the righteous One. He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only for ours, but also for those of the whole world. (1 John 2:1-2 HCSB)

#29540 Fri Dec 02, 2005 7:32 PM
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I should clarify. My sources need to be 1900-present.

#29541 Thu Dec 08, 2005 7:42 PM
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Here's a quote from "1, 2, 3 John: A handbook on the Greek Text" by Martin Culy. I highly recommend the volume.

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Scholars debate whether this term, and related terms, refers to propitiation or expiation. Propitiation focuses on God's wrath being appeased, while expiation focuses on the wiping away of sin. According to Buchsel (317), Plutarch uses this term to focus on both "cultic propitiation of the gods and expiatory action in general." He goes on the argue... [what follows is a discussion of why Buchsel thinks the term does not imply propitiation.] Rather then deciding between a focus on expiation or propitiation, it is probably better to simply recognize that hilaskomai refers to dealing with the problem of sin, while hilasmos refers to the means by which sins are dealt with, or "the means by which sins are forgiven." (LN 41.12).


(Latin phrase goes here.)
#29542 Thu Dec 08, 2005 8:17 PM
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Pilgrim has already given you a good answer here. If you desire a text for your study then may I suggest A First John Reader, Intermediate Greek Reading Notes and Grammar, by S. M. Baugh. I am not sure how you are laying out your paper, but Gordon Fee's handbook is good for this, New Testament Exegesis. My Greek paper (Galatians 2:17-21) was just over 100 pages and Fee's book really assisted me with content evaluation and organization.....


Reformed and Always Reforming,
Henry #29543 Thu Dec 08, 2005 9:14 PM
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I actually have that book. It is one of the textbooks for the class. Thank you for the quote though! <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/BigThumbUp.gif" alt="" /> I appreciate it a lot! [Linked Image]


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