Tom
Kelowna, British Columbia, Canada
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#43317
Wed Sep 23, 2009 8:33 AM
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Yesterday I joined a women's Community Bible Study. The ladies are going through the books of 1st and 2nd Kings and the minor prophets of that era.
The lady who taught the lesson explained that there are several times in the OT when the author explains a person's behavior and neither approves of it nor condemns it. (No problem with that) She went on the explain that the Kings did things that were wrong partly due to the fact that they were not indwelt with the Holy Spirit.
So here are my questions: Were Old Testament saints indwelt with the Holy Spirit? I think they were. I don't think they were saved any differently than we are saved today, except we have more revelation and the blessing of being able to look back at history's most significant moments.
And secondly, I am new to this Bible study, basically unknown to the group, and more than likely one of the few Calvinists in the bunch. I am inclined to think that this issue is not worth approaching the teacher about. Would you agree?
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So here are my questions: Were Old Testament saints indwelt with the Holy Spirit? I think they were. I don't think they were saved any differently than we are saved today, except we have more revelation and the blessing of being able to look back at history's most significant moments. First, we can say in general terms that it is the Spirit of God Who regenerates, sanctifies and preserves ALL whom God has determined to save. This is the work of the Spirit in all generations. Without the Spirit, no one can be saved, sustained nor secured unto eternal life in Christ. Secondly, specifically there are clear OT references to the indwelling Spirit. Here are but a few: - The promise of the Spirit in the blessing of Abraham. (Gal 3:14)
- Joseph is said to have the Spirit of God within him. (Gen 41:38)
- Moses and the 70 elders were raised up and qualified by the Spirit of God for his commission. (Num. 11:17)
- Joshua possessed the indwelling Spirit. (Num 27:18; Deut 34:9)
- The comforting power of the Spirit during the wilderness journey. (Neh 9:20; Isa 63:11, 14)
- Othniel (Judg 3:10), Gideon (Judg 6:34), Jephthan (Judg 11:29), Samson (Judg 14:19)
- Samuel was filled with the Spirit. (1Sam. 10:20)
- All the Prophets had the indwelling Spirit. (2Pet 1:21; Ex 4:16; 2Kgs 9:7; Hos 8:7; Isa 21:11; Zech 11:3)
- David had the Spirit of God with him. (1Sam 16:13; 2Sam 23:2; Ps 51:11; 139:7; 143:10)
- Solomon wrote of the indwelling Spirit. (Prov 1:23)
- Hosea was said to be 'the man of the Spirit'. (Hos 9:7)
- The OT Church in general had the same 'Spirit of faith'. (Ps 45:7; 68:18; cf. 2Cor 4:13 and Ps 114:10)
That should suffice to show that the Spirit indeed indwelt believers before the coming of Christ.  And secondly, I am new to this Bible study, basically unknown to the group, and more than likely one of the few Calvinists in the bunch. I am inclined to think that this issue is not worth approaching the teacher about. Would you agree? That's a judgment call. IF the subject of the class is salvation; how it is accomplished and appropriated, then it is more than relevant. For, how could any of the OT be written by inspiration (2Pet 1:21) without the indwelling Spirit and without which there would have been no Gospel? How could anyone before Christ be saved if it was not for the inner working of the Holy Spirit who regenerates the soul and brings sinners to faith in Christ? etc., etc. IF, however, this subject of the indwelling Holy Spirit in the OT was simply an aside brought up by one of the participants, then perhaps it would be prudent to let it slide.  In His grace,
simul iustus et peccator
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Thanks for the thorough response, Pilgrim.
Now I am wondering why many Bible teachers have made the claim that OT saint were not indwelt. The abundant references you provided present a very good case. Not to mention your first point about how God redeems his people throughout history.
I suspect that by saying the OT saints were not indwelt somehow supports dispensationalism, but I am not sure how or why that would be the case.
The person who made this statement teaches the large (100+) group of ladies. As I look forward into what we'll be studying for the next 30 weeks I suspect this issue will come up again. And when it does, I will be ready to kindly share a different perspective.
In Christ alone,
Jane
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Seems to me we have had this thread before. My understanding is that the Holy Spirit was given to OT saints for a specific call by God on their life, e.g the Prophets, David, Solomon etc. It wasn't until Pentecost that The Holy Spirit was given by Jesus to indwell every believer.In Jn 16, Jesus promises the gift of the Holy Spirit to his disciples when he is no longer with them. Also Jn 14:16 seems to indicate that they did not as yet have the Holy Spirit. Am I missing something?
Be killing sin or it will be killing you. John Owen
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Yes, the Holy Spirit was active in the calling of various men to certain offices and functions, e.g., Prophet, Judge, King, etc. And this calling is not only seen in godly men but also in ungodly men, e.g., Cyrus (2Chron 36:23; Ezk 1; Isa 44:28; 45:1) through whom the Lord accomplished His purpose(s). However, the question must be asked, In regard to salvation how did the Holy Spirit work in sinners during the OT administration? More specifically, were the OT saints regenerated, irresistibly draw to faith in the coming Messiah and sanctified? If so, were these things accomplished by something other than the work of the Spirit? Or, if by the Spirit, did the Spirit work externally from them or internally? I did provide quite a number of passages where many clearly showed that the Spirit dwelt within men. Perhaps it would be profitable for you to read through them and consider what they teach concerning the indwelling Spirit. Those given to Dispensationalism or its hermeneutical principles (no implication concerning you personally  ), to one degree or another, see a great amount of discontinuity between the OT administration and the NT administration, e.g., the bifurcation of Israel and the Church, circumcision and baptism, the visible vs invisible Church, worship, the relationship between law and grace, and some even believing that God was different in the OT from the NT. I have heard/read where some believe that the God of the OT was angry, hard, strict, etc., vs the God of the NT Who is loving, merciful and full of grace. One of the most contentious verses that is often used to prove this radical discontinuity is Jeremiah 31:31 where the prophet speaks of a "new covenant". It is popular today to believe that the word "new" is to be understood to mean, 'totally different' or 'without similarity'. Classic Reformed theology, however, understands the word "new" to mean 'better', 'complete', 'fulfilled', 'mature', etc. In regard to the Holy Spirit we hold that the Spirit's work didn't change in the work of salvation but rather increased; a new universality and knowability. So, the question that needs to be dealt with here is, Is there a difference in how men were saved in the OT vs the NT? Did the Spirit regenerate the OT saints differently than He does in the NT saints? Were the OT saints sanctified and able to delight in and keep the law, albeit imperfectly, without the indwelling Spirit? In His grace,
simul iustus et peccator
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It appears to me that the role of the Holy Spirit is the same today as it always has been.A few examples to bear this out : 1- Job 33:4, Job was conscious that the spirit was his creator ,just as we are. 2- Psalm 39, The Psalmist could enjoy the presence of the spirit,just as we can. 3- Num.27:18, Gen. 41:38, both Joshua and Joseph experienced the indwelling of the spirit ,just as we do. Neh.9:20, The spirit provided instruction,just as he does still. He gives us victory over fear the same as He did in the OT,Haggi 2:5. These are but a few of many ways that the spirit of God does the same as He has always has.
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Pilgrim,
Thank you for your clear explanation! I find it facinating that there are so many areas where discontinuity vs. continuity applies.
In my experience, pastors have taught that the church began at Pentecost, but they don't explain why they believe that or explain anything about the OT saints.
Am I correct in understanding that most who believe in greater continuity would say that the church began with Abraham?
Thank you so much, Pilgrim, and Sojourner, for taking the time to explain these topics. A lot of the time I feel like I know just enough to be dangerous, and that's an uncomfortable place to be in.
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I agree that the work of the Spirit was the same in OT believers as it is today. The Spirit bringd Illumination and brings us from death to life. There was ,is, and will be only one way of salvation. It is by grace we are saved . My only question is, if the Holy Spirit indwelt believers in Jesus day, why did he promise the Spirit's coming at Pentecost? Please help my confusion.
Be killing sin or it will be killing you. John Owen
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Am I correct in understanding that most who believe in greater continuity would say that the church began with Abraham? Actually, I and many others would say the Church began with Adam.  Was not Adam included with those who believed and who are to be included in final exaltation of God for His salvation in Christ? The "Church" (Gk: ecclesia; called out ones) includes ALL those who have been redeemed in Christ. From Adam to Pentecost and beyond, during the ministry of the Apostles we see the progressive development and organization of the Church; from infancy to maturity. We can even see the distinction between the Church and the world in Cain and Abel and then Seth, no? This too is revealed more and more especially after the calling of Abraham when a distinct nation, a people of God is called apart from the world and further emphasized by both the teachings of Jesus and of subsequent inspired writers of the NT. In His grace,
simul iustus et peccator
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I agree that the work of the Spirit was the same in OT believers as it is today. The Spirit bringd Illumination and brings us from death to life. There was ,is, and will be only one way of salvation. It is by grace we are saved . My only question is, if the Holy Spirit indwelt believers in Jesus day, why did he promise the Spirit's coming at Pentecost? Please help my confusion. Okay, let's first iterate and emphasize that the Spirit's work in salvation is and has always been INTERNAL; regeneration, irresistible calling, in conversion, sanctification and preservation to the end of those who have been saved. There is also the "external" working of the Spirit, if we can describe it that way which can be seen in both those who were of faith and those without faith. One aspect of that work was in the empowering to accomplish a specific task for the purpose of accomplishing the work of God on earth; either known or unknown to the recipient. This same bestowal of "power" and/or "gifts" was promised to the disciples (cf. Jh 14:26; Acts 1:5,8). The Spirit was "to come upon" them. They were to be "baptized in" the Spirit. It was after this receiving of the Spirit that they would recall all that Jesus had taught them and receive a fuller understanding of it. They would receive power to be witnesses of Christ for the furtherance of the kingdom and much more. In the development of the Church after the ascension of Christ where Gentiles were included en masse as prophesied in the OT writings, the Spirit was instrumental in displaying the reality of their inclusion outwardly through the giving of certain gifts. This working of the Spirit must not be confused with the indwelling of the Spirit which is salvific in nature. Does that help clarify things for you... just a wee bit?  In His grace,
simul iustus et peccator
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Pilgim, Yes, your reply is very clear, thanks. i have always been somewhat confused about the work of the Spirit in OT believers. Thanks for your wisdom and insight. it really does make sense now
Be killing sin or it will be killing you. John Owen
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Whew!! That was easy. ![[Linked Image]](http://the-highway.com/Smileys/dance2.gif)
simul iustus et peccator
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Muchforgiven, Although Pilgrim did a thorough job in describing the work of the Holy Spirit I will offer this analogy that I heard recently that helped me understand this work. There was a hydroelectric dam scheduled to be built on a river above a cluster of homes that had been in this valley for for several generations.The people that lived in the valley had drawn life from the river in many ways including everything from bathing to food. After the dam was complete they still had all the benefits they had before and in addition they had electricity which greatly improved their lives and flood control which brought a measure of safety they had never experienced. The Holy Spirit's ministry was just expanded after Pentecost.
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Thanks Sojourner, I like your analogy and I love that the Holy Spirit's work was expanded at Pentecost. How blessed we are to be living in these times. Oh for grace to love Him more!
Be killing sin or it will be killing you. John Owen
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Hello, New here but would like to say on the Old/New salvific-
Old Covenant “salvation” is a promissory note New Covenant “salvation” is cash “Cash” is easier to understand because we don’t exactly know where the “money” will come from to pay off the “promissory note/debt”.
To me one of the biggest hurdles facing Grace based salvation is when someone tries to turn it into license. Grace does not equal license, but Armenian types are accusatory in this respect. The same grace/license idea snared/snares many. Reality of Grace is that desire to satisfy the will of our Redeemer above any other. Realistically we are growing in grace and if we could hit the mark every time then we would be able of our own accord.
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