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#58274
Tue Dec 13, 2022 8:58 PM
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Joined: Apr 2001
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Needs to get a Life
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Needs to get a Life
Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 4,892 Likes: 48 |
In the following link https://www.gotquestions.org/meaning-of-Elohim.htmlIt says: Elohim is a Hebrew word that denotes “God” or “god.” It is one of the most common names for God in the Old Testament, starting in the very first verse: “In the beginning [Elohim] created the heavens and the earth” (Genesis 1:1). The name Elohim occurs over 2,500 times in the Tanakh.
The basic meaning behind the name Elohim is one of strength or power of effect. Elohim is the infinite, all-powerful God who shows by His works that He is the creator, sustainer, and supreme judge of the world. “Bring to an end the violence of the wicked and make the righteous secure—you, the righteous [Elohim] who probes minds and hearts” (Psalm 7:9). However. It goes further by stating something I have never heard before. But I found quite a few other sources that say similar things. Making Bible translation more complex is the fact that Elohim has other usages in the Old Testament besides referring to the One True God. In some contexts, elohim refers to human rulers or judges (see Psalm 82:6 and John 10:34)—the idea is that such people are to act as God’s representatives on earth, exercising authority wisely and ensuring justice. The warning of Psalm 82 is that the human elohim must answer to the Supreme Elohim some day. Elsewhere, elohim is used to refer to false gods (e.g., Deuteronomy 4:28). “They have forsaken me and worshiped Ashtoreth the [elohe] of the Sidonians, Chemosh the [elohe] of the Moabites, and Molek the [elohe] of the Ammonites” (1 Kings 11:33). Note that elohe is a form of elohim used with qualifying words or phrases and translated “god of.” I am trying to look into this a little deeper, to see if this is correct. Tom
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Joined: May 2016
Posts: 104 Likes: 1
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Joined: May 2016
Posts: 104 Likes: 1 |
If you have a Strong's concordance, or any Bible software (which usually includes Strong's), you can confirm that their facts are correct, in that the references cited do indeed use the given Hebrew (or Greek, in the case of John). Is that what you were asking?
Meta4
There is no such thing as preaching Christ and Him crucified, unless we preach what nowadays is called Calvinism. It is a nickname to call it Calvinism; Calvinism is the gospel, and nothing else. - C.H. Spurgeon
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Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 15,025 Likes: 274
Head Honcho
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Head Honcho
Joined: Apr 2001
Posts: 15,025 Likes: 274 |
I am trying to look into this a little deeper, to see if this is correct. What exactly are you trying to confirm? Meta4 is correct with his reply. A simple explanation is that is every language the meaning of words can be different. In English this is certainly true, e.g., "RUN" means what? - moving your feet quickly in a certain direction - what the sap in maple trees does in the early Spring - what people do to get elected; run for office - what happens to your nose in cold weather - what people sometimes do when they don't want to answer a question; they give you the run-around - what water does when you turn on the faucet - etc. Thus "Elohim" isn't restricted in the Bible to being a proper name for Jehovah/Yaweh, the one true God. Often CONTEXT will determine the correct meaning but also knowing how the word(s) in question were used among the people in the time the word was written through other available written sources.
![[Linked Image]](http://www.the-highway.com/pilgrim/pil_sig2.gif) simul iustus et peccator![[Linked Image]](http://www.the-highway.com/Smileys/pencil.gif)
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