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I know that modernists wish to abolish what evangelical churches have always taught concerning betrothal. If there is no NT betrothal contract, why does the WCF, Art. XXIV, state, "Adultery or fornication committed after a contract, being detected before marriage, gives just occasion to the innocent party to dissolve that contract."?

Speratus, what does this have to do with the situation at hand? No contract was made. A vague sense of "commitment" from a heathen to a Christian is by no means a betrothal.

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I grant that Elect was rather ambiguous but the fact that the brother was aware of the non-Christian's commitment to his sister implies tacit consent by the family of their engagement.

What engagement? You are inventing facts not in evidence.

Kyle

I tell you, this man went down to his house justified.