The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Divorce Due To The Unbelieving Spouse Leaving

Greetings All:


In the 1Cor. 7 passage, we know it says that the believing spouse can let the unbelieving spouse leave/depart if they desire to depart. I have taken the position that based on the "bondage" and "called to peace" language that this is not an allowance for the unbelieving spouse leaving for just any reason, but only if it is due to the "Christian Faith" of the believer. Some may argue that what ever the reason given for the unbeliever leaving, it is ultimately because of the believer's faith in the Lord Christ. Would appreciate the opinions of all who are willing to particpate including pastors/elders.

Soli Deo Gloria...

ESV 15 But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you [2] [us] to peace.

It appears that if the unbelieving spouse initiates divorce, or if there the unbelieving spouse is engaged in pornaia, or will not live peaceably with the believing spouse, there is cause for divorce.

In the case of the situation of pornaia,

1. porneia is used (a) of "illicit sexual intercourse," in John 8:41; Acts 15:20, 29; 21:25; 1 Cor 5:1; 6:13, 18; 2 Cor. 12:21; Gal. 5:19; Eph. 5:3; Col. 3:5; 1 Thess 4:3; Rev. 2:21; 9:21; in the plural in 1 Cor.7:2; in Matt. 5:32 and 19:9 it stands for, or includes, adultery; it is distinguished from it in 15:19 and Mark 7:21; (b) metaphorically, of "the association of pagan idolatry with doctrines of, and adherance to, the Christian faith", Rev. 14:8; 17:2, 4; 18:3, 19:2; some suggest this as the sense in 2:21.

and;
My MacArthur Study Bible footnote for that passage says this:
sexual immorality. This is a term that encompasses all sorts of sexual sins. Both here and in 5:32, Jesus includes this "exception clause," clearly permitting the innocent party in such a divorce to remarry without incurring the stigma of one who "commits adultery."

Hope that helps.

The term "no longer in bondage" in 1 Cor 7 is another way of saying "free". That is, free from any obligation to the deserting party, and thus free to remarry.

The Reformation Study Bible ESV study note on verse 15 states,

7:15 is not enslaved. Some interpret this statement to mean that if the unbelieving spouse deserts the marriage, the believing partner may remarry. The thrust of this passage, however, is simply that a Christian is not obligated to insist that the marriage remain intact. Such an insistence would prevent them from living in "peace".

To quote the verse, more foy my benefit as I type,

But if the unbelieving partner seperates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace.

As I read the verse, I tend to agree with Sproul's assertion as well as MacArthur's and the original posts thoughts. Especially in light of the verses before ad including 15:

To the rest I say (I, not the Lord) that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her. If any woman has a husband who is an unbeliever, and he consents to live with her, she should not divorce him. For the unbelieving husband is made holy because of his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy because of her husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy. But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace. (1 Corinthians 7:12-15 ESV)

Thank you for the responses so far. Let's say I have read more into the enslaved/called to peace part of the passage. I'm still struggling with the idea that this passage permits the unbeliever to leave the marriage for any reason. Isn't it implied in the passage, that if the "unbeliever" desires to leave the "believer" that it must be over their "faith?" Or could it be said that what ever the reason is for the unbeliever leaving it is permissable because the unbeliever will not have the same desire to obey the Lord regarding marriage? Am I answering my own question? :- ) Thanks again...Brother Bret

Hi Brother Bret

Good to see you post again <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/smile.gif" alt="" />


The first thing that comes to my mind is, if an unbelieving spouse wants a divorce how can the believing spouse stop them, if they have their mind made up?

As for whether or not the passage allows for remarriage, I don't think it speaks on that.

Tom

An unbeliever DOES NOT care what is in the Word of God, thus from what authority are you compelling him to stay if they desire a divorce?

However, from the rest of the context in 1 Cor 7, I see "basically" that the two were living in harmony prior to Christianity becoming an issue. Thus, the situation Paul is dealing with is how a believer is to deal with Christianity/divorce in a mixed marriage and at least here is not dealing with other related marriage issues. Although I think we may draw some general principles from the context, however, as far as unbelievers go, I still must ask what authority will they submit to ....

A helpful link here: http://www.peacemakers.net/unity/1corinthians7-12-13.htm

Tom,

Could you then explain what the highlighted portion of the text means, please?

1 Corinthians 7:15 (ASV) "Yet if the unbelieving departeth, let him depart: the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such [cases]: but God hath called us in peace."

In His Grace,

The words "not under bondage" (I can’t say this with absolute certainty), would seem to indicate that the believing spouse is free to leave the marriage. I say that because I don't see anything in the context, to show that it is talking about anything other than the marriage in question.
Now I am not saying that remarriage is out of the question, I am just not confident that we can justify remarriage from this verse.

Tom

1) I'm not following your reasoning here, Tom. How would this text say the believing spouse is free to "leave the marriage", when it is talking about the unbelieving spouse having already left the marriage?

2) Why would one who is no longer "under bondage", i.e., bound to the marriage covenant not be free to remarry? Is there some sin involved by the believing spouse should the unbelieving spouse desert? Are there specific conditions that must be met before a believer is warranted to remarry? I can only think of the "exception clause" in Matt. 5:32. It would appear that Paul is adding a second reason where divorce is legitimate. But is your view that even though Paul says that the believer has warrant from God to divorce an unbelieving spouse who has deserted the marriage, they have no warrant to remarry in the Lord? And do you think that Paul should have been obligated to mention remarriage in this particular text if there was a question about it?

In His Grace,

Pilgrim

As I said, I wasn't saying that remarriage isn't an option. I am just saying that I don't think the verse is talking about remarriage.
I have consulted a few commentaries on this and they seem to indicate that the issue of "remarriage" can not be supported whole heartedly by this particular verse. It may, but I am not really comfortable saying it does.
Your questions are good ones to which I will think about further, but at the moment I am in a bit of a rush.
You have access to a few commentaries that I don't have, I would be curious as to what they say concerning the verse.

Tom