Zech 12:10 is speaking of Christ's return and the Jewish recognition of Him as their Messiah. In a verse shortly before it, however, Zech 12:7, the reference to the divided house of Judah and Jerusalem is clearly referenced, that which has to be applied in context to the Zech 12:10 passage.

Therefore, unless at a future point in time Israel once again becomes a house divided, is it not mandatory to address this spiritually (Jews/Judah-perhaps? vs Jesus-David's house, Christians).

But to do so, isn't it necessary for a person to make his/her own call on this by applying any thought of the modern Jews being represented by Judah? At what other place in the Bible can we find a reference to the modern Jews being represented as "Judah" to such an extent?

Second, once the Jews recognize Christ as their Savior in Zech 12:10, why must the events in the early part of Zech 14 take place shortly thereafter? Is the assumption that they recognize Him in Zech 12:10 but yet still refuse to accept Him despite the mourning taking place?

I'm really confused by this. Hopefully one of you can help. Thanks so much.