Tom,

I simply take the text at face value:

  1. Rebuke those who offend you with the goal that they will repent. This is the same principle upon which church disciple is established. We are not to harbor resentment, speak of the person's sin(s) behind the offender's back, etc., but rather confront him.
  2. Forgiveness is to be anticipated by the one offended and without bounds when repentance is shown. In other words, forgiveness can have no bounds. (cf. Matt 6:14, 15; 1Jh 1:9, 10)
  3. Without repentance, forgiveness cannot be offered. We may pray and our Lord did that God will not exact vengeance upon the offender immediately but rather to be long-suffering, yet that justice will be done in the end. (cf. Lk 23:34)

I believe this is what this passage teaches and perhaps that which you have also concluded. Hermeneutically, I see this as being consistent with other similar passages which are more often than not misunderstood. For example, Jh 14:13, 14 when taken in isolation from the rest of Scripture appears to be a carte blanc promise of God to give to the one who prays anything asked for. Yet, the same author, John qualifies this passage in his first Epistle, 1Jh 5:14 by adding that one will be granted what he prays for IF it is asked according to His will.

We may not be able to forgive the offender without the required repentance, but this does not mean we are to harbor resentment and seek revenge upon the unrepentant. We are to "turn the other cheek" in such situations.

Do you have any further thoughts on this? Is this similar to what you have concluded?

In His grace,


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simul iustus et peccator

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