Hi Kyle, Do you think there is clear biblical evidence that Jn 6:51-59 is merely symbolic and not literal?

Is there good evidence for this in the Light of the World (Cf. Mt 5:14) between 100 and 1000 A.D.?

Tertullian: "[T]here is not a soul that can at all procure salvation, except it believe whilst it is in the flesh, so true is it that the flesh is the very condition on which salvation hinges. And since the soul is, in consequence of its salvation, chosen to the service of God, it is the flesh which actually renders it capable of such service. The flesh, indeed, is washed, in order that the soul may be cleansed . . . the flesh is shadowed with the imposition of hands, that the soul also may be illuminated by the Spirit; the flesh feeds on the body and blood of Christ, that the soul likewise may be filled with God" (The Resurrection of the Dead 8 [A.D. 210]).

In the Holy Spirit of God, Dan Schultz

Last edited by patricius79; Wed Sep 16, 2009 11:19 PM.