The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum Papal Infallibility..Catholic Definition

I realize that I shouldn't be amazed that you and the Roman State Church contorts the inspired written Word in this way to teach something that clearly doesn't exist. So, let's do a quick "Exegesis 101" course re: Romans 1:19,20, always holding fast to the truism, "A text out of context is nothing more than pretext!"

Romans 1:16-22 (ASV) "For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. For therein is revealed a righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith. For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hinder the truth in unrighteousness; because that which is known of God is manifest in them; for God manifested it unto them. For the invisible things of him since the creation of the world are clearly seen, being perceived through the things that are made, [even] his everlasting power and divinity; that they may be without excuse: because that, knowing God, they glorified him not as God, neither gave thanks; but became vain in their reasonings, and their senseless heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,"

Again, this will be extremely brief, but I belief sufficient to expose the glaring error of Rome's teaching concerning the ability of anyone to be saved by knowledge derived from natural revelation. So, 1) Paul begins by stating right off, that it is the GOSPEL that is the power of God unto salvation. For from the knowledge of Christ in the Gospel, men see their sinfulness, need of redemption and reconciliation with God and the necessity to trust in Christ by faith. (vss. 16 and 17) 2) It is the wrath of God (judgment implied) against all ungodliness which is revealed in the natural order. Notice that Paul does not even hint that salvation from sin and/or judgment is to be found in the things which are seen with the eyes. This wrath of God is manifested because of what is to be gleaned from the natural creation. But even more so, what is "natural revealed" concerning God is further manifested in them, i.e., by nature, all men know the existence of the true living God and this inner knowledge was given them by God Himself! (v. 19) 3) Paul now tells us what this knowledge consists; namely His "everlasting power and divinity". And because this knowledge is known by all men, they are without excuse. It is thus incontrovertible, that by this knowledge, all men are held responsible for their perverseness and will be held accountable. There is no defense any man can offer in his/her behalf for distorting, ignoring and/or rejecting what they inherently know by divine revelation. (v. 20) 4) Lastly, Paul brings forth the evidence against all men by which they are under judgment. They, knowing the revealed truth about God, which is clearly seen in the things that are made, refuse to act accordingly, but rather live out their lives in rebellion and rejection and substitute this truth for a lie; i.e., they entire lives are a contradiction to everything they know is true concerning their Creator and Sustainer. (cf. Eph 4:17-19 and cp. Gomer in the book of Hosea).

It is absolutely irrefutable that men are under judgment, according to the testimony of Paul, due to the fact that they know God from natural revelation and reject it. There is nothing in Romans 1:19, 20 to suggest that salvation is attainable outside the Gospel and by believing upon the Redeemer Christ Who is only known in the Gospel. Now, will you please show me how this passage teaches what you and Rome believe?

In His Grace,