MHeath said: From the way I understand it, during the times you are speaking of (old testament) there was a literal contract of betrothal. It was as you describe, with the marriage ceremony confirming the contract. It is not so now though and you must know this.
I know that modernists wish to abolish what evangelical churches have always taught concerning betrothal. If there is no NT betrothal contract, why does the WCF, Art. XXIV, state, "Adultery or fornication committed after a contract, being detected before marriage, gives just occasion to the innocent party to dissolve that contract."?
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MHeath said: I don't think that Elect said anything about a contract being drawn up for betrothal, otherwise he would surely have mentioned it and his issue may have been, "should we try and get her out of the contract."
Also, if I understand it correctly, in the old jewish system,it was the father who made the contract for the bride to be and her future husband. I don't think this is the case with Elect's sister.
Michele
I grant that Elect was rather ambiguous but the fact that the brother was aware of the non-Christian's commitment to his sister implies tacit consent by the family of their engagement.
Regardless of this specific case, do you believe that non-belief is grounds for terminating a betrothal?
