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Pilgrim
Pilgrim
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Does Paul speak for himself a couple of times #46002
Mon Feb 28, 2011 8:27 AM
Mon Feb 28, 2011 8:27 AM
Joined: Sep 2001
Posts: 1,803
Mississippi Gulf Coast
John_C Offline OP

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John_C  Offline OP

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How should we take it when Paul writes, "I say (I not the Lord)"? He does that a couple of times in Corinthians. I would think it is just as authorative (from God), but still why did he write that?


John Chaney

"having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in your faith . . ." Colossians 2:7
Re: Does Paul speak for himself a couple of times [Re: John_C] #46003
Mon Feb 28, 2011 8:38 AM
Mon Feb 28, 2011 8:38 AM
Joined: Apr 2001
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NH, USA
Pilgrim Offline

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Pilgrim  Offline

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NH, USA
John,

The majority of reliable commentators and the teachers I sat under say that the phrase "I say, I not the Lord" means what Paul writes immediately thereafter belong to his own understanding (still under divine inspiration) vs. what Christ taught him personally and specifically. Put another way, Paul is writing on a subject which he believes is in complete accord with the teachings of Christ by way of application.


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Re: Does Paul speak for himself a couple of times [Re: Pilgrim] #47268
Sat Aug 27, 2011 8:02 PM
Sat Aug 27, 2011 8:02 PM
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MarieP Offline
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MarieP  Offline
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Do you think Paul (or the other authors) always knew they were writing Scripture?

Peter recognizes Paul's letters as Scripture in 2 Peter 2:13, and Paul cites Luke as Scripture in 1 Timothy 5:8. If they didn't know at the time, it would have been interesting to hear Paul and Luke's reactions!


True godliness is a sincere feeling which loves God as Father as much as it fears and reverences Him as Lord, embraces His righteousness, and dreads offending Him worse than death~ Calvin

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