The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum 1 Cor. 6:9-11

What I actually wrote did not narrow your insistence that Webster's Dictionary eliminated a reference to: " any and all forms of homosexuality and/or sexual deviation (transgenderism, sexual identity, etc. etc., ad nauseam". Thus HOMOSEXUALITY and and all other forms of sexual sins ARE referenced in all of the texts you posted.

Moulten and Milligan The Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament is a far more reliable source to determine definitions of NT words vs. Webster's Dictionary. Secondly, historical records of translations of the New Testament contradict your understanding and source material. Interpretations of these texts that teach about sexual aberrations of all forms by notable and reliable men, commentaries, sermons and articles contradict what you are seemingly suggesting. What is true that many (most?) modern "translations" do in fact distort what the NT actually teaches about these sexual abominations and on that basis alone they should be avoided without thought. They are glaring examples of the result of using the infamous but unfortunately predominate use of a Dynamic Equivalence method of translation.

Much of what you wrote above has already been presented here by those who are ensnared by these sexual sins and used to justify their disgusting beliefs and lifestyles and attempts to distort the clear biblical teaching on these matters. Webster's dictionary is often a favorite "proof" that homosexuality is not condemned by God in the Bible. And the hermeneutical gymnastics used are nothing short of insulting and laughable, albeit it is an affront to human logic and God's Word.