The second Greek word translations like the ESV include as homosexual is arsenokoites. Paul uses it in 1 Cor. 6:9 as "abusers of themselves with mankind" and in 1 Tim. 1:10 as "them that defile themselves with mankind". Remember, how the 1828 Webster's English Dictionary defines those two key words "abusers" and "defilers", which would be the understanding for hundreds of years. The 1828 gives: abuser, deceiver, a sodomite, a ravisher(which is defined as "one that takes by violence" and "one that forces a woman to his carnal embrace), defile(defined as to corrupt chastity, to debauch, to violate) and attention is called to Gen. 34, which is about rape.

The BDAG in its definition as used in the ESV, says that KJV "effeminate" in 1 Cor. 6:9 is "sodomized" by those called arsenokoites. While to "sodomize" can be defined as merely being the passive partner in anal intercourse, most here in America view it defined as:

American Heritage Dictionary: "sodomize...To subject to an act of sodomy, especially forcibly."
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=sodomize

Webster's New World Dict: "sodomize...To engage in sodomy with; specif., to forcibly subject to sodomy." https://www.yourdictionary.com/sodomize

The Greek arsenokoites is found nowhere before Paul's use of it twice, and it is not seen for a hundred years thereafter. It appears that Paul coined the word from arsen as man, and koites which is a "couch" or "bed". This word koites is used as represent the marriage bed in Heb. 13:4, and is translated "conceived" in Rom. 9:10. But, the key to the word is how Paul used koites in another of his vice lists:

"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13 KJV)

There Paul uses the word for rampant promiscuity along with drunkenness and wantoness, so we get a good idea of the word there. We get a further meaning of Paul in 1 Tim. 1 where he lists sins more in categories: "murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers" and "for liars, for perjured persons" and he places our word thus: "whoremongers, for arsenokoites, for menstealers".

So we have Paul using koites in the Rom. 13:13 vice list as promiscuity, and in the 1 Tim. 1:10 in the manner of force or violence. I keep referring to the 1828 Webster's for the simple fact that you would not expect a 2000 English dictionary to be as accurate as the 1828 which is closer to the timeframe of the translation. The BDAG definition of arsenokoites is "a male who engages in sexual activity w. a pers. of his own sex, pederast". Remember, according to the BDAG, this is a male who is said to have "sodomized" the effeminate, the one called malakos. NOTICE, the BDAG does not define malakos or arsenokoites as "homosexual(s)". Thayer's Lexicon defines thus:

ἀρσενοκοίτης, ἀρσενοκοιτου, ὁ (ἄρσην a male; κοίτη a bed), one who lies with a male as with a female, a sodomite: 1Co 6:9; 1Ti 1:10. (Anthol. 9, 686, 5; ecclesiastical writings.)

A line in the NET Bible translator's note on malakos in 1 Cor. 6:9 reveals how some will translate to fit their preconceived notion that malakos is a sinner called a homosexual:

"This term is sometimes rendered 'effeminate,' although in contemporary English usage such a translation could be taken to refer to demeanor rather than behavior."

The word "demeanor" is defined as behavior or conduct; therefore it is obvious, "effeminate" just did not give the behavior that the NET Bible translators wished to present! This clearly reveals how the various modern evangelical translations render the Greek according to their preconceived notion is must be sin, even if they have to twist the language to make it so.

AGAIN, I do not support the 'gay theology' or 'gay agenda' as seen in the LGBTQ and their perversion of marriage, etc.; BUT, on the other end of the spectrum I just as strongly reject the conservative translations as giving a biased view. That biased view has helped produce the hateful nastiness seen in conservative Christians/churches, which understandably brings up the charge of homophobia.

Earlier I quoted how John Calvin understood malakos and he did not view it as sexual conduct. The Puritan Matthew Poole comments on 1 Cor. 6:9 - "Nor abusers of themselves with mankind; nor such as are guilty of the sin of Sodom, a sin not to be named amongst Christians or men." The sin of Sodom as far as sexuality goes, was attempted rape, and Eze. 16:48-50 gives the sin of Sodom and does not specify any sexual sin.

The claim that the Bible condemns a loving, consensual, enduring 'gay' relationship is nowhere that I can find. The abusiveness of the sodomite is what I find in the Holy Bible. When you read the secular sources of information on this topic, in Paul''s day, you find the abusiveness of sodomy, not a loving gay relationship. No one seems to notice, the Bible nowhere condemns lesbianism, and it must be read into Rom. 1:26 to make it seem so.

I notice that with the adulterer in the Bible, we never hear him spoken of as a male who practices heterosexuality. In the YLT, some form of adultery or adulterer is mentioned in 29 verses, but the term "sodomite" is found in only 2!

Today's culture truly is affecting how the Bible is being translated. This makes it difficult to study oneself out of the maize of confusion.