Getting back to the English Bibles in our history, versions of today do not give the same message as the older respected versions. Notice them in comparison -

1611 KJV nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind
1881 ERV nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with men,
1898 YLT nor effeminate, nor sodomites
1901 ASV nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with men

The KJV was THE English Bible most read until at least 1946, a span of 335 years, and the understanding of the two words in question remained the same, and the 1828 Webster's shows it. On this verse, there is no variation from the TR to our latest Greek Text. No new manuscripts have been found changing the Greek meaning on the two words in question. The site www.onelook.com lists 30 English Dictionaries and I find none that define "effeminate" as referring to sexual conduct. I doubt that the ESV and similar modern versions will be the "standard" for the next 300+ years, and for good reason:

"Not since the Septuagint—the Greek-language version of the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament) produced between the 3rd and the 2nd centuries BCE—had a translation of the Bible been undertaken under royal sponsorship as a cooperative venture on so grandiose a scale. An elaborate set of rules was contrived to curb individual proclivities and to ensure the translation’s scholarly and nonpartisan character." https://www.britannica.com/topic/King-James-Version

"The population from which scholars can now be drawn is much larger than in the seventeenth century, but it would be difficult now to bring together a group of more than fifty scholars with the range of languages and knowledge of other disciplines that characterized the KJB Translators. (Bible – The Story of the King James Version 1611-2011 Oxford, Gordon Campbell, Oxford University Press 2010.)" https://kingjamesbibletranslators.org/bios/

To evaluate that statement about scholars, read the biographies of those men who translated the KJV. I'll trust them more than the scholars of today.
https://kingjamesbibletranslators.org/allPhotos.php

When it comes to indepth Bible study, one step in the process will include literal, word for word translations. Yet, even the Interlinear NTs do not always agree:

1. "nor abusers of themselves as women, nor abusers of themselves with men" TR
2. "nor voluptuous persons nor sodomites" 21st edition of Eberhard Nestle's Novum Testament Graece
3. "nor effeminate nor homosexuals" 27th Edition NA
4. "nor male prostitutes nor homosexuals" 28th Edition NA
5. "nor soft ones nor male homosexuals" 28th Edition NA

1. George Ricker Berry, 1897 "The Greek Text is the Standard", with Grk lexicon of some words
*"μαλακός... soft, of garments, Mat. xi.8; Lu vii.25; disgracefully effeminate, 1 Cor. vi.9"
2. NIV/Greek Interlinear, Zondervan, gloss of Greek text by Alfred Marshall, 1958
3. NRSV/Greek Interlinear, Tyndale, 1990
4. NRSV/Greek Interlinear, Tynedale, 2020
5. ESV/Greek Interrlinear, Crossway, 2018

Before going to the NT Greek reference works, we can do a reality check on a translation such as the ESV by using a bit of research and common sense. The words malakos and arsenokoites are given as:
"nor men who practice homosexuality...The two Greek terms translated by this phrase refer to the passive and active partners in consensual homosexual acts"

A Christian man wrote online "I will engage in mutual fellatio and masturbation, but not anal intercourse for that would be the sin of sodomy." According to the ESV, that man was correct. Why is the assumption made that homosexual males practice anal intercourse as a rule.

"...the equation of 'homosexual' with 'anal' sex among men is common among lay and health professionals alike," whereas an online survey of 18,000 MSM in Europe 'showed that oral sex was most commonly practised, followed by mutual masturbation, with anal intercourse in third place.' A 2011 survey by The Journal of Sexual Medicine found similar results for U.S. gay and bisexual men. Kissing a partner on the mouth (74.5%), oral sex (72.7%), and partnered masturbation (68.4%) were the three most common behaviors, with 63.2% of the sample self-reporting five to nine different sexual behaviors during their last encounter."
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sexual_practices_between_men

The idea that homosexual orientation or relationships are solely about sex is erroneous:

"Sexual orientation refers to an enduring pattern of emotional, romantic, and/or sexual attractions to men, women, or both sexes. Sexual orientation also refers to a person’s sense of identity based on those attractions, related behaviors, and membership in a community of others who share those attractions. Research over several decades has demonstrated that sexual orientation ranges along a continuum, from exclusive attraction to the other sex to exclusive attraction to the same sex."
https://www.apa.org/topics/lgbtq/orientation

In the next reply I'll go into the study using the Greek NT references, but in closing this reply, John Calvin's comment on malakos makes sense as it is in agreement with the standard English, "effeminate" -

"By effeminate persons I understand those who, although they do not openly abandon themselves to impurity, discover, nevertheless, their unchastity by blandishments of speech, by lightness of gesture and apparel, and other allurements."