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What did Pazat meant by using the phrase "God for its principal author"? Who are the less prinicipal authors of Scripture?

It appears as if that is a partial inerrantist position without the argument of failed translations.

His meaning here is to point out that the scriptures were inspired by God and to proclaim that the Bible is God's Word.

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Honestly, does Rome treat the early church fathers the same way?

Not at all- most of the Church Fathers spoke in latin- a tounge very familiar to the Roman Church.

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But the real problem for Rome is not one of Bible translations, it's one of dogmatic foundations on patristic, conciliar, and papal theology and traditions.

That's a terrible claim to make about the Roman Church. If you were talking about the Mideval church- I might let you off with such a generalization- but the modern Church- no. While there are obviously some conservative factions in Rome (what denomination doesn't have such factions?) the problem is not politically and traditionally. The Catholic Church does not have problems with modern translations as long as they are accurate translations. In fact, the Bible I have with me now is the NAB (CE).

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More a gloss than a mistranslation. But Martin Luther's translation is not the issue.

I am merely reminding people of the fact that translators are always free to add their own thoughts about the passage and do not always stick to just translating the text.

Gloria Patri et Filii et Spiritu Sancti, Amen!

"For I know the thoughts that I think towards you, saith the Lord, thoughts of peace, and not of affliction, to give you an end and patience. "