The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum "Love your enemies" and "Does God love all"

hisalone,

I can appreciate that you think what you have discovered is different and thus at odds with historic Calvinism; on this particular subject. However, I must bring up the following:

1. The fact that it is at odds with historic Calvinism places the onus on you to PROVE from Scripture that your view is correct. This, admittedly, is an ominous task since those who have held to the historic view over the centuries come from various theological distinctives, e.g., Presbyterian, Congregational, Baptist, etc. The fact that all these groups who differ on several non-essential elements agree on this subject has to say something, yes? <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/scratchchin.gif" alt="" />
2. I cannot reconcile your view that God loves ALL, without distinction and in the same manner with the incontrovertible truth that out of the entire human race, God has chosen some, a remnant to be saved by grace in Christ through faith and the vast majority have been consigned by divine decree to eternal punishment. It seems only logical that IF God loved ALL without distinction, then ALL would benefit from that love in the exact same manner. Can you explain how it can be said and also shown biblically, that those in Hell are "loved of God" in the exact same manner as those destined to glory?
3. Since the attributes of God are inherent and thus eternal in His being and therefore do not and cannot change due to anything outside of Himself, God's decree to elect some out His eternal love (cf. Eph 1:4; Jh 6:39; 17:9, 11, 24; Heb 2:10-13; et al), being one and the same, i.e., God's love results in election in Christ how can it be said that God loved the reprobate in His eternal decree to consign them to perdition?
4. You have stated that this view of God's love of which you now hold does not contradict nor has it changed any of the other doctrines of the Reformed Faith. Yet, I cannot reconcile this statement from biblical teaching nor logic. For since the Father and the Son are one (Jh 10:30), then the love which belongs to the Father likewise belongs to the Son. Therefore, those whom Jesus loved are one and the same as those who are loved by the Father. Again, redemption is inextricably bound to the love of God. Being loved of God always and immutably results in salvation. It here that I have to conclude that logically, IF God loves all without exception and equally, so does the Son love and thus gave Himself for ALL without exception.
5. I could offer more, but let me finish by iterating that which I have already in other replies written concerning the biblical usage of the word "hate" (Gk: miseo). God's hatred is not only of sin but of sinners, for without sinners, the angelic host included, there would be no sin. Sin is the RESULT of someone transgressing the law of God. And for someone to transgress the law of God there must be a prior dispensation/inclination to do so. That is why the Scripture everywhere speaks of the "heart" of man being evil, the mind being corrupt, etc. It is out of the heart of man that sin comes. (Matt 15:19; Gen 6:5; 8:21; Jer 17:7; et al) For a thorough defense of this biblical truth, see here: Does God Love the Sinner and Hate Only His Sin?, by Dr. John H. Gerstner.

In His grace,