You didn't provide any clear biblical evidence, you simply asked if I though certain other verses were symbolic. I said "yes" in regard to at least one. But I didn't say that any of them are symbolism or "only symbolic"

Likewise, Jn 6 is symbolic, but it gives no evidence of symbolism--i.e., "only a symbol." Jn 6:51-56...well, the Holy Spirit testifies to these words, which are clear, as are Mt 26:26, Mk 14:22, etc.

This "only a symbol" idea is not anywhere in Scripture. Rather, Scripture says that that "the cup of blessing which we bless" is "our participation in the blood of Christ." Nowhere is there a statement of "it's just a symbol". Thus, your argument is adding to Scripture, rather than do exegesis of it.

As far as the burden of proof...

As I've said, the Catholic Church does not claim that the fathers all give explicit testimony to Transubstantiation. So your point is moot. Neither does she say that they always taught the truth infallibly. (Chrysostom was obviously Catholic, but he made a mistake that I know of; but it was not formal heresy).

Moreover, the Church, being Christ's Body, the "fulness of the One who fills all things in every way" (Eph 1:22-23), obviously had one soul, and one Spirit.

So, as a Christian if you say the Catholic Church was not unanimous--which I think is false--you must show another visible (Ps 48:11-end; Mt 5:14; Luke 1:31-32) historical Body which was. (The Bible doesn't teach the invisible Body idea.)



Last edited by patricius79; Thu Oct 15, 2009 10:59 PM.