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I am discovering that the gulf between the theology of Calvinism and Arminianism is much larger than I had ever imagined and it disturbs me. One of Pilgrim's references for me pointed to a site with the paper, 'Arminian Errors' by William MacLean. It was an eye-opener, especially the section where he bashes evangelicals from Billy Graham "and on down" to use his words. I say that I am disturbed because my own views place me in position to be your opponent even though I would desire fellowship and a true sharing of God's word in humility.

I have stated, repeatedly, that Billy graham offers a different gospel. He offers a merely possible gospel where mans sovereignty is key. I believe in an effectual gospel, where Jesus death actually paid for sin and secured the salvation of many. We both limit the atonement; I limit its scope, you limits it efficacy.

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Let it not be thought that the Arminian by his doctrine escapes limited atonement. The truth is that he professes a despicable doctrine of limited atonement. He professes an atonement that is tragically limited in its efficacy and power, an atonement that does not secure the salvation of any.
He indeed eliminates from the atonement that which makes it supremely precious to the Christian heart. In B. B. Warfield’s words, ‘the substance of the atonement is evaporated, that it may be given a universal reference’.
What we mean is, that unless we resort to the position of universal restoration for all mankind--a position against which the witness of Scripture is decisive--an interpretation of the atonement in universal terms must nullify its properly substitutive and redemptive character.
We must take our choice between a limited extent and a limited efficacy, or rather between a limited atonement and an atonement without efficacy. It either infallibly saves the elect or it actually saves none." (Murray, The Reformed Faith and Modern Substitutes, in The Presbyterian Guardian, 1935).

I also doubt you could offer any examples of bashing in that paper. Disagreeing with somebody and saying so is not bashing. If you could offer an example, maybe.

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Can we all agree that the Phillipian jailor was unsaved at the point of verse 30? Else he would not have asked, "...what must I do to be saved?" Let's discuss the state of the jailor at this point. According to the soteriology that I have studied, a person is in an un-regenerated state prior to being saved. Their spirit is dead and they cannot even receive the things of the Holy Spirit because their own spirit is dead. This was a condition brought to the whole human race through Adam's original sin.

This is correct. This doctrine is known as Total Depravity. Its basis was confirmed early in church history. Man is incapable of doing anything to save himself. Please note this, because everything must be Gods doing. This is a monergistic salvation rather than a synergistic. Jesus says; "he who commits sin is a slave to sin" (John 8:34), and this is what it means to be `dead in your sins and transgressions'--that `the natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness to him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned' (1 Cor. 2:14). The `natural' man cannot know the things of the Spirit of God. Jesus also confirms this when He says “no man can unless the Father draw him” (John 6:44). So far we agree. However, this starting point, mans ability and the condition of his will, is important.

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What prompted or motivated the jailor to desire salvation? The Holy Spirit who was drawing him. He observed Paul and Silas' faith and wanted this assurance of salvation in his own heart. What if the jailor had not followed their advice, what if he chose not to beleive? He would not have been converted according to verse 31.

If God was drawing the jailer, it was either an effectual calling or general, though ineffectual pleading. I believe, that since God purposed to save a remnant, an elect, a people of God, he brings about their conversion. In the Arminian scheme, God only draws all people to a point of salvability, and then leaves the final choice to man sovereignty. This is an ineffectual call. This would also cause us to wonder where in scripture this middle ground, this spiritual equipoise, because it is never mentioned. I uphold what is known as Irresistible Grace. The result of God's Irresistible Grace is the certain response by the elect to the inward call of the Holy Spirit, when the outward call is given by the evangelist or minister of the Word of God. Christ, himself, teaches that all whom God has elected will come to a knowledge of him (John 6:37). Men come to Christ in salvation when the Father calls them (John 6:44), and the very Spirit of God leads God's beloved to repentance (Romans 8:14). What a comfort it is to know that the gospel of Christ will penetrate our hard, sinful hearts and wondrously save us through the gracious inward call of the Holy Spirit (I Peter 5:10). To me, there is no “what if”. Either the jailer was effectually called to repentance or his “choice” was made from his sinful nature.

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What initiates conversion?

The Holy Spirits drawing. Here is another passage from Acts tom illustrate this…….
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Act 2:37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? (KJV)

And another…….
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Act 16:14 And a certain woman named Lydia, a seller of purple, of the city of Thyatira, which worshipped God, heard us: whose heart the Lord opened, that she attended unto the things which were spoken of Paul. (KJV)

These people were called efficaciously. This is confirmed in that “My sheep hear my voice”, Jesus said in John 10:27. This is a major point of division between the Arminian and Calvinist. The Calvinist believes God elected specific people, provided real salvation for them, and calls effectually His chosen. The Arminian believes God elected a plan, made a way for salvation for all, and begs every person to “choose the right thing”. The difference here is a matter of efficacy. Who makes grace efficacious?

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According to the Calvinist's view, they must say that the jailor has to do NOTHING. If the jailor's salvation hinges upon the condition to 'Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ...' then you will likely say that Sovereign Grace has been thwarted because the will of man is involved in something you say is entirely within God's will and resources to accomplish.

Calvinists do not classify faith as a work, nor do they exclude it from the process of salvation. They say with Paul `by grace [we] are save through faith, and this is not from [ourselves] but is God's gift; not from works so that none may boast' (Eph. 2:8-9). Calvinists do say that no fallen man will ever exercise saving faith, nor have the desire to do so unless God regenerates their heart and renews their mind (as per. 1 Cor. 2:14). If man must exercise free will in order to be saved; that is `agree with God', or `accept God's offer', etc., then man in a state of sin must be said to have the ability to do some amount of good, even if it be only a small amount, and thereby please God to the ends of salvation. How can this view be made consistent with verses like John 8:34, 1 Cor. 1:18; 2:14, Rom. 8:7-8, John 6:44 where it is plainly stated that sinful man has no ability to please God, agree with, receive or understand the things of God, or come to Christ, prior to regeneration?

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You will probably tell me that the jailor was elect although no one including himself can know this. You will say perhaps that the jailor having been chosen as part of the elect was pre-disposed to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. I wonder if you even acknowledge the "new birth" that Jesus spoke to Nicodemus of in John 3?

Since you didn’t show how I do not uphold the new birth, or how my position is in opposition to it, I don’t see what you are saying exactly. I believe this was answered by somebody else already, though.

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God will not read His word for you. You must exercise iniative and pick up the word of God and read it. Or hire or listen to someone preach the gospel message. Did I help God write His word? No. Did I have any part in God saving me? No.

That’s correct, but your next set of statements contradicts these. However, I never claimed God would “read His word to me”. This claim has no meaning, unless it is a personal evaluation of my study habits. Nor did I ever claim you helped God write the Bible. I fail to see how this applies.

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Can I appropriate God's blessings, injunctions and edifications by simply reading and receiving His word? Yes. Do I need to do anything for God (Jesus) to save me? Yes. Believe on the Lord Jesue Christ. Does this mean I am helping God to save me? No.

Wait. You can appropriate, by something you do, a work, Gods blessings? I disagree, in that grace, by definition, is unmerited favor. I believe that all are sinners (Romans 3:23) and unable by human performance to earn, deserve, or merit salvation (Titus 3:5). We believe that the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23), and that apart from God's grace, no one can be saved (Ephesians 2:8-9). We believe that none are righteous, or capable of doing good (Romans 3:10-12), and that apart from the conviction and regeneration of the Holy Spirit, none can be saved (John 1:12-13; 16:8-11; I Peter 1:23-25). Mankind is clearly fallen and lost in sin.

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"It also follows necessarily, since Christ by His death actually procured nothing that guarantees the salvation of any man, and yet some men are saved, that the most one can claim for His work is that He in some way made all men salvable. But the highest view of the atonement one can reach by this path is the governmental view. This view holds that Christ by His death actually paid the penalty for no man's sin. What His death did was to demonstrate what their sins deserved at the hand of the just Governor and Judge of the universe, and permits God justly to forgive men if on other grounds, such as their faith, their repentance, their works, and their perseverance, they meet His demand. ... But this is just to eviscerate the Savior's work of all its intrinsic saving worth and to replace the Christosoteric vision of Scripture with the autosoteric vision of Pelagianism." Robert Reymond, "A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith" (Thomas Nelson, 1998), p. 80

I hope this helps to understand the differences in our positions, and which scripture upholds.


God bless,

william