A true Christian understands that his understanding of God's word depends upon the illumination of the word by the indwelling Holy Spirit. Yet, there are common sense steps that can be taken to be safe in one's biblical faith. It must be kept in mind that commentaries, translations, Greek Lexicons and even the marginal cross references in Bibles are created by man, therefore subject to biases, theological presuppositions, cultural influences, etc.
Step one is use a literal translation like the ASV, which more closely translates the original words consistently the same, and search the entire Bible for the English word under consideration by studying each occurrence in context. Letting the biblical writers under inspiration, give the meaning of their words by their usage of them. A prayerful, bare word study in English and then Greek/Hebrew is the surest way to arrive at the truth of God.
Step two is compare some classic, reputable commentaries and compare the arguments, reasoning and common sense used as the arguments made from other scriptures. Some classic commentaries are Matthew Poole, John Gill, Adam Clarke and Matthew Henry for instance.
Step three is go to the Greek/Hebrew behind our English. Start with using the classic Strong's of 1890, not the "new" modified ones. Using Bible software such as
www.theword.net you can search for every occurrence of the Hebrew or Greek word and study those in context. Of course the basic definition by Strong's will give a starting point. If you wish to go in depth on definition, as I do, check the highly respected BDAG (Bauer-Danker Greek Lexicon of the New Testament) and I'll quote from the 2000 Edition on
malakos -
2 pert. to being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate esp. of
catamites, of men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship..." The definition is given in bold and italics, and the Foreward in the BDAG explains: "When a formal equivalent is sufficient to convey the meaning, as marry in the entry γαμέω, this meaning stands in bold italics without extended definition. Normal italic type is used for suggested translation equivalents. In short, pains have been taken to provide readers with ample resources to form an independent critical judgment." Notice that the word "homosexuals" is not found here! Also, the BDAG used the word "sodomized", so how do most understand that word?
American Heritage Dictionary: "sodomize...To subject to an act of sodomy, especially forcibly."
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=sodomizeWebster's New World Dict: "sodomize...To engage in sodomy with; specif., to forcibly subject to sodomy."
https://www.yourdictionary.com/sodomizeThis BDAG lexicon is one appealed to in many modern translations, but do other NT Greek scholars agree on this definition? I'll give two that disagree -
"μαλακοί ] effeminates , commonly understood as qui muliebria patiuntur , but with no sufficient evidence from the usage of the language (the passages in Wetstein and Kypke, even Dion. Hal. vii. 2, do not prove the point); moreover, such catamites ( molles ) were called πόρνοι or κίναιδοι . One does not see, moreover, why precisely this sin should be mentioned twice over in different aspects. Rather therefore: effeminate luxurious livers ." Heinrich August Wilhelm Meyer (10 January 1800 - 21 June 1873)
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/hmc/1-corinthians-6.html "μαλακοί , soft, voluptuous , appears in this connexion to signify general addiction to sins of the flesh; lexical ground is wanting for the sense of pathici , suggested to some interpreters by the following word and by the use of molles in Latin." The Expositor's Greek Testament
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/eng/egt/1-corinthians.htmlIn some NT Lexicons you find
makakos defined as "catamites" metaphorically or figuratively,
not literally. To further check the meaning of the Greek, there is a huge Greek-English Lexicon online and it does not support the BDAG as above. Greek had the EXACT word for a catamite and it is not
malakos! The Greek for a catamite can be seen at this link of the Liddell-Scott-Jones Lexicon -
"κίναιδος ...A cinaedus, homosexual, gay, catamite, Pl.Grg.494e, etc.: generally, lewd fellow, Herod.2.74, PSI5.483.1 (iii B.C.), Arcesil. ap. Plu.2.126a. Synonyms: βάταλος, λάσταυρος, μαρικᾶς
2 public dancer (?), PTeb.208 (i B.C.), perhaps also CIG4926 (Philae).
3 pl., κίναιδοι = obscene poems, obscene verses D.L.9.110.
II a sea fish, sea-fish, Plin.HN32.146.
III = κιναίδιον, Gal.12.740,800."
https://lsj.gr/wiki/%CE%BA%CE%AF%CE%BD%CE%B1%CE%B9%CE%B4%CE%BF%CF%82
Paul's word malakos does NOT mean a catamite or homosexual as can be seen also in the LSJ -
https://lsj.gr/wiki/%CE%BC%CE%B1%CE%BB%CE%B1%CE%BA%CF%8C%CF%82
At this point, I go back to a word study, but using the exact Greek that Paul used, G3120 and it is found as "soft" as in clothing, Mat 11:8, Luke 7:25 twice; apart from the use in 1 Cor. 6:9 . I find the Abbott-Smith's Manual Greek Lexicon a help because it gives where the word is used in the LXX which is Pro. 25:15 in place of H7390 and Pro. 26:22 in place of (H3859).
In the study of the word
malakos, I'm inclined to believe the change in translation today is dictated by the culture, the conservative reaction against LGBTQ activism, just like in the liberal NRSV, NRSVue and REB; today's feminist culture has strongly influenced those translations in our day. Since most wish to connect
malakos to
arsenkoites I'll look at that in the next reply.