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Speratur quotes,

"The two participles are substantivized and describe the person that shall be saved ("believeth" and "baptized," dm)" comments R. C. H. Lenski, Interpretation of St. Mark's Gospel, pg. 765). "'Believeth' and 'baptized' are aorists," Lenski continues (by aorists, Lenski means denote single acts, dm). "Both verbs have forward or anticipated fulfillment (goal). This goal to be obtained is 'salvation.'" (Ibid., pg. 766).
Speratus, while I truly respect Lenski, and use his NT Commentary often, there are times he makes (1) theological errors (2) and stretches texts to assert a meaning that is just not there. He is like Lee (who is excellent in historical research, however makes misapplication of much he learns and at time fails to compare it with Scripture) who I warned you of earlier. This is a case and point where Lenski has been blinded by his Lutheran presuppositions and not humbling himself before the text of Holy text. Anyone having taken even elementary Greek understands that the Aorist does not speak of the ‘future” (anticipated fulfillment) here. The use of the Aorist in any given situation depends on its combination with other linguistic features. In this verse the Aorist is speaking of something that has happened in the past with continuing effects, not that salvation is going to happen in the future. Clearly, in this case Lenski’s Greek is found wanting.

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The word “believeth” is an aorist participle referring to one who has believed at some time in the past. Also, the Greek term for baptized is translated “is baptized,” is an aorist participle but in the passive voice. This form refers to an act of outward obedience, in this case, baptism. Therefore, the correct translation here should be stated, “He who believed and who was baptized shall be saved.” However, the Lord adds, “. . . but he that believeth not shall be damned.” It should be noted that this negative statement does not include a reference to baptism, making it clear that what saves a person is living faith in Jesus Christ. This is made clear in Ephesians 2:8, “For by grace are ye saved through faith. . . .” The word “saved” is a perfect passive participle. It means that this salvation took place at some point in the past and is continuing on in the present, being accomplished by Jesus Christ Himself. If baptism were necessary for salvation, Ephesians 2:8 and many others verses should have been translated “ye are saved through faith and baptism.” (Spiros Zodhiates).
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The omission of baptized with “disbelieveth” would seem to show that Jesus does not make baptism essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on disbelief, not on baptism. So salvation rests on belief. (A.T. Robertson).
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Mark 16:16: “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.” The negative proposition in this declaration is the clue to its interpretation. Christ, in these words, expresses succinctly and with amazing accuracy the exact relation that baptism bears to saving faith. The outward symbol is enjoined with no equivocation, and yet no saving value is placed upon it, for the negative proposition conditions damnation solely upon the failure to believe. The failure to be baptized does not condemn, according to the divine estimate. Now, if baptism were essential to salvation the statement would be incomplete. (Dallas Theological Seminary. Bibliotheca Sacra Volume 99, Vol. 99, Page 102, Dallas Theological Seminary, 1942; 2002.)

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Before He ascended Jesus told the disciples, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. He who believes and is baptized will be saved; and he who does not believe will be condemned” (Mark 16:15–16). Does not this passage teach that water baptism is necessary for salvation?

The answer is “no,” which several observations demonstrate. In the first place, belief, not baptism, is the critical issue in this passage. The passage says that if you do not believe you will be condemned; it does not say if you do not believe and are not baptized you will be condemned. Obviously, then, the issue is faith.

Perhaps more importantly, it should be pointed out that this passage does not say, “be baptized to be saved,” nor does it say, “if you are not baptized you cannot be saved.” Neither does it discuss believing and not being baptized. Therefore, one cannot say that this passage demands baptism for salvation. In other words, given the two items of belief and baptism there are only four possibilities:
  • 1. Believe and be baptized ….. Salvation
  • 2. Believe and not be baptized …. Not discussed
  • 3. not believe and be baptized ….. implied, but not discussed
  • 4. not believe and not be baptized ….. condemnation
Since this passage does not discuss the possibility of believing and not being baptized, it cannot be said that this passage teaches that baptism is necessary for salvation. To say the passage teaches that one must be baptized to be saved is to add to the passage. The apostle John gave a stern warning against doing such a thing (Revelation 22:18).

How does one then explain the statement, “He who is saved and is baptized will be saved?” The point, as Matthew 28:19 confirms, is that baptism is a part of the great commission. As has been pointed out, Mark 16:16 does not say “be baptized in order to be saved”; it says “he who believes and is baptized.” It is like saying he who gets on a bus and sits down will go to New York. That does not mean that one must sit down in order to get to New York. Technically, all that is necessary to get to New York is to get on the bus. Likewise, as we have seen, the critical issue in Mark 16 is faith. All a person has to do to get to heaven is trust Christ. This means one may believe, be baptized, and get to heaven, or one may believe and not be baptized and still get to heaven. What this passage definitely does not teach is that one must be baptized to receive God’s forgiveness. (Chafer Theological Seminary. Chafer Theological Seminary Journal Volume 3, Vol. 3, Page 9-10, Chafer Theological Seminary, 1997; 2002).
I would have given you some more quotes, however all my books are packed for our move taking place at the end of the month. Thus, this will have to suffice.

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Speratus kindly remarks,

Your Zwinglian view that baptism is a work of man is refuted by Calvin. The Auburn Street Presbyterian Church quotes the "Antidote to Trent":
First, if you desire to use Calvin I would not be quoting from Auburn Street. <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/rofl.gif" alt="" /> Second, did you know that Calvin also wrote;

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BAPTISM is the initiatory sign by which we are admitted to the fellowship of the Church, that being ingrafted into Christ we may be accounted children of God.

It is now clear how false the doctrine is which some long ago taught, and others still persist in, that by baptism we are exempted and set free from original sin, and from the corruption which was propagated by Adam to all his posterity, and that we are restored to the same righteousness and purity of nature which Adam would have had if he had maintained the integrity in which he was created. This class of teachers never understand what is meant by original sin, original righteousness, or the grace of baptism. Now, it has been previously shown (Book 2 chap. 1 sec. 8), that original sin is the depravity and corruption of our nature, which first makes us liable to the wrath of God, and then produces in us works which Scripture terms the works of the flesh (Gal. 5:19).

The two things, therefore, must be distinctly observed—viz. that we are vitiated and perverted in all parts of our nature, and then, on account of this corruption, are justly held to be condemned and convicted before God, to whom nothing is acceptable but purity, innocence, and righteousness. And hence, even infants bring their condemnation with them from their mother’s womb; for although they have not yet brought forth the fruits of their unrighteousness, they have its seed included in them. Nay, their whole nature is, as it were, a seed of sin, and, therefore, cannot but be odious and abominable to God. (Institutes of the Christian Religion; IV, xv, 10).
Of course we don’t even have to go that far, for “if” you had read the entire Antidote to the Sixth Session of the Council of Trent on the Doctrine of Justification (1547) (located here at The Highway <img src="/forum/images/graemlins/grin.gif" alt="" />) you would have seen and hopefully understood things more clearly;

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(Genesis 17:7) In virtue of this promise they are admitted to baptism, because they are considered members of the Church. Their salvation, therefore, has not its commencement in baptism, but being already founded on the word, is sealed by baptism.

Moreover, how frivolous and nugatory the division of causes enumerated by them is, I omit to show, except that I neither can nor ought to let pass the very great absurdity of calling Baptism alone the instrumental cause. What then will become of the gospel? Will it not even be allowed to occupy the smallest corner? But baptism is the sacrament of faith. Who denies it? Yet, when all has been said, it must still be granted me that it is nothing else than an appendage of the gospel. They, therefore, act preposterously in assigning it the first place, and act just as any one who should call a mason’s trowel the instrumental cause of a house! Unquestionably, whosoever postponing the gospel enumerates baptism among the causes of salvation, by so doing gives proof that he knows not what baptism is, what its force, its office, or its use.
Is it any wonder that you negate the whole counsel of God when attempting to defend your views. We must return to the texts (all of them), which you seem unable to exegete. You came back to Mark 16:16, which once again your (well Lenski’s) exegesis was disproved, but YOU did not deal with the other selected texts. The “whole counsel of God,” Speratus, not just the parts that you think make a case for your side.

When will you stop kicking against the pricks Speratus (Acts 9:5, 26:14)?