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Yankee said:
Does the word also in this verse refer to the moral character of God AND his law?
1Jo 3:4 ¶ Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Perhaps by giving you that same passage in another translation, (for this purpose, I am using Darby's Translation), which might help clarify what the Apostle John meant?

1 John 3:4 (DBY) "Every one that practises sin practises also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness."


The opposite of v. 3:4 can be seen in 2:29; i.e., "righteousness". And what the Apostle is here doing in v. 3:4 is emphasizing that side of sin "lawlessness" (opposition to and disregard of God's law), which makes "sin" the very opposite of "righteousness". Both "righteousness" and "lawlessness" are strong forensic terms: as the righteous Judge God declares what is righteous (2:29) and what violates His law.

Hope that helps?

In His Grace,

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simul iustus et peccator

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