The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum ...The people miscalled Antinomians ?

How often have people used this weak argument to try and circumvent the "essence" of biblical truth? Perhaps the similar long-standing reply will suffice here to say that the word "Trinity" isn't found in Scripture either, but would you therefore say that the doctrine of Trinity is to be rejected? "Moral" refers to that which is holy and righteous; i.e., that which is according to the standard which reflects the nature, character of God and by which all men are to be, held responsible and will be accountable.

I must reject your interpretation of these texts as they are 1) taken out of context, and 2) contradict other clear statements in Scripture which affirm that the "law" being referred to is, in fact, the moral law, aka: Ten Commandments. Romans 12 is actually a statement of clarification (commentary) on what Paul had previously said in verses 6-11. What Paul is saying is that it matters not whether a person has heard of the law (Decalogue) or not, but whether they have lived according to its requirements. Even though the Gentiles did not know the law (Decalogue) they are going to be held accountable for breaking it. That it is the Ten Commandments which Paul is referring to in his use of the word "law" is obvious from verses 21, 22. (see also Rom 13:8-10) Men are judged for their "sins", i.e., the "transgression of the law".

William Hendriksen makes a valuable point here when he writes:

A word of caution is necessary at this point. It must be borne in mind that at this juncture the apostle is not drawing a contrast between justification by faith and justification by the works of the law. Those who would so interpret what he is saying would be making Paul contradict himself, for the very purpose of this letter is to show that a person is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Christ. No, the antithesis he is discussing here in 2:12, 13 is that between two groups of people: (a) those who not only hear but also obey, and (b) those who merely hear. Cf. Matt. 7:24-29. It is, of course, the former who are pronounced righteous by God. Cf. Lev. 18:5, "If you obey them [my statues] you shall live."


So interpreted, that rule holds even for those believers who are living in the new dispensation. Precisely because they have been delivered from the curse of the law, they are all the more deeply obliged not only to hear but also to obey the gospel. By their good deeds, resulting from gratitude, they show that by God's sovereign grace and power they have given their hearts to him. In him alone do they place their trust. From him they have received their status of being righteous in God's eyes.

I have already dealt with this idea in a reply to BookMark a few days ago, but I'll summarize it once again here for your benefit. There is to be no bifurcation between the moral law and Christ's righteousness as found in the Gospel. For, Christ came to "fulfill" the law and thus establish that law once for all through his perfect active obedience. There are not two "laws" of righteousness. And Christ did not inaugurate a different "law" than what had been established at creation and then again iterated to Moses on the two stone tablets.

The Lord Christ did not bring his own righteousness which surpassed the righteousness required in the Ten Commandments. Jesus Himself confessed that all that He spoke and did was not of Himself but that which the Father had required of Him. (Ps 40:7, 8; Jh 4:34; 5:30; 6:38; Phil 2:7, 8; Heb 10:7-9) The Lord Christ was to live perfectly before God according to that which was required by ALL men; i.e., the righteousness defined by God's perpetual moral law. The Lord Christ was crucified so that the punishment due those for whom He came to atone for; as per the requirements of the moral law, would be fulfilled. The curse of the law was put on Him. (2Cor 5:21)

Further, it is expected that those who say they have faith in Christ; who love the Lord Christ will obey His "commandments". (Jh 14:15; 15:10) His commandments are not different than His Father's commandments, but identical to them, for they are one and the same. (cf. 1Jh 5:1-3)

Lastly, in regard to the Pharisees, it nowhere can be read that they are rebuked for keeping the law, in fact the text you refer to (Matt 5:20) shows that the Pharisees' keeping of the law didn't go far enough. They had externalized the law, distorted the law, and added to the law and thus were rebuked for doing THAT. Christ's point in saying that our righteousness must exceed the righteousness of the Scribes and Pharisees is that one must keep the law in all its depth perfectly if one is to be justified; an impossible task. So that to obtain that perfect righteousness, one must embrace Christ as their righteousness.

In His Grace,