Wes, why do you say Mr.Potts ,Gadsby et al, "discredit its(law) usefulness" ? Or have I missed something - again ?

Are they not refering to the
whole counsel of God and his Law rather than a small section of a so-called moral law ?



What does the Bible say about "moral" law ?















The Shorter Oxford English Dictionary says of "Moral law" : the body of requirements in conformity to which virtuous action consists;one of these requirements.OPPOSED to "positive" or "insituted" laws.

So is the moral law ,as you see it , opposed to Biblically insituted law as it meaning implies ?

Are we not to delight in the insituted Law of God rather than the philosophical traditions ,customs ,ethics and morals of men ? (Col 2:8)