Peytonator,

Why not ask a few questions; twelve in total to be exact?

I will attempt to give answers, albeit brief due to the sheer number and the complexity of some, to your questions. But I must first preface my answers by saying that the perpetuity and practice of water baptism has been universally acknowledged for over 2000 years by all but very few (Friends/Quakers) denominations/churches/individuals in Christendom. The fact that there is much disagreement in regard to who are proper recipients and the mode goes to give even more strength to this testimony of unanimity of its universal validity. Is it feasible that with the acknowledged disagreements among the various groups they ALL find the Scriptures to teach that water baptism is to be practiced, that none understood that water baptism was to be abolished? Can it be that men such as Augustine, Luther, Calvin, Knox, Zwingli, Owen, Goodwin, Edwards, Whitfield, Hodge, Warfield, Strong, Dabney, Berkhof, et al totally missed the truth about water baptism, again given their differences concerning this rite?

1) Why did Christ Himself never baptise (Jn 4:2)?
a) This prevented anyone from boasting that they had been baptized by the Lord Himself vs. being baptized by a mere disciple of Christ. (cf. 1Cor 1:17)
b) Jesus surely didn't forbid baptism but contrariwise commanded and approved of water baptism as administered by His disciples. (cf. 4:1; 3:22) "What
they (his disciples) did,
he was in reality doing (through His agents)." [Hendriksen]
c) As one of baptism's significant meanings, i.e., reception into the visible church upon a profession of faith, this was to be done by those who were to oversee those admitted. This was the responsibility of the Apostles and eventual Elders appointed as undershepherds. (Eph 2:19-22; Acts 14:23; 20:17; 1Tim 5:17; Titus 1:5; 1Pet 5:1)
2) Why, in the context of the "great commission," did Paul say He was not sent to baptise, but to preach the gospel (1 Cor 1:17)?
a) See (a) and (c) above.
b) The text itself explains why Paul rarely baptized. It was his calling, as was the case with the other Apostles, to preach the Gospel and to teach throughout their travels.
4) [there is no #3] Why does John the Baptist contrast his water baptism with Christ's spiritual baptism?
John's ministry was preparatory, i.e., to introduce the coming of the Messiah, Jesus. He had no authority nor power to send the Holy Spirit of God Who is instrumental in bringing salvation.
5) Why, if there is only ONE baptism (Eph 4), do nearly all denominations hold both spiritual and water baptism? Either it is spiritual, or physical, but surely not both. Why do we gladly recite the creed: "I acknowledge ONE Baptism for the REMISSION OF SINS," and yet have two? Yet spiritual baptism does remit sins; "...it is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing..."
a) There are in fact two "baptisms" taught in Scripture; water and Spirit. We must not confuse them nor especially to dismiss one or the other. One of the inherent meanings of the former signifies the latter.
b) Grammatically, it is best to take the 'triad' as one indivisible phrase; "one Lord in whom we all believe and in whose name we have been baptised." [Scott]
c) I really like what Grosheide wrote on the matter of "one baptism":
There is only one baptism which is received by many (perhaps a number of persons simultaneously). All the members of the congregation are baptized in the same manner, and we may well assume, after or in connection with the same sermonic elucidation."
"By means of baptism the fellowship of believers with their Lord was sealed (Gal 3:27)." [Hendriksen]
6) Where in the NT is baptism ever a symbol or sign?
Sorry, but this question would require a lengthy response and I don't consider it to be relevant to the questions already asked nor those that follow.
