thanks

Ok give me at least a week to assimilate all this jawdrop

But until then, just to clarify a few things, so that we can continue the discussion...

Originally Posted by Pilgrim
Originally Posted by Peytonator
10) Why are practically all verses in the Epistles "dry" verses, if I might use that term?
Absolutely untrue. The vast majority of references to baptism in the NT and the OT too, are "wet", i.e., with the element of water as agent and in the OT, blood was also used. See one of my previous answers to the many passages which refer to water baptism.

I agree with you, but see what I said in bold.

I notice that you quoted Gal 3 and Col 2. Yet surely such passages have actually nothing to do with water.

Originally Posted by Pilgrim
Originally Posted by Peytonator
12) Prove that Mat 28:19 is not spiritual? Cannot this command be given in the same way as Jude 1:23 - i.e. do it through the preaching of the Word, as happened in Acts 19:3-5, no?
...
c) I fail to see the relevance of Jude 1:23. shrug

To give you an idea of why I quoted it: Jude 1:23 is command to "save" people. Yet only God can do that. We "save" people by preaching the gospel to them. In the same way, we (or rather God) "baptise" people by preaching the gospel to them. Same things applies for passages such as Jer 4:14 and John 3:7.

You are absolutely right about baptism being central in church history... that is a major concern for me. Thus the questions smile

Graham