The Highway Forums General Discussion Theology Discussion Forum ...The people miscalled Antinomians ?

It is one thing to recognize (Bolton didn't set up anything) that the moral law of God, being the expression of His very nature and the definitive standard of holiness and righteousness and is thus the rule by which believers are to be guided by. And, it is the same immutable standard by which all men are going to be judged and either be found guilty of trangressing it or innocent having kept it perfectly.

You are confusing the issue unnecessarily. I have many times previously said that Christ is both our Justification and Sanctification (1Cor 1:30). Salvation is accomplished 100% by the perfect life and atoning work of the Lord Christ and that alone (aka: active and passive work). That work is then imputed to the one who has rests their faith in HIM; the person of Christ, believing that God has accepted HIS sacrifice as meeting all the demands of the law.

I say, BOTH, Justification AND Sanctification, for even though one is justified by faith, that doesn't mean that the individual can then live a life of sin thereafter. Righteousness, the perfect keeping of God's moral law, which the Lord Christ did, is not abrogated because the effects of Original Sin are partially eradicated. I say, partially, because although the guilt, which was imputed, is removed and replaced by Christ's imputed righteousness, the inherited corruption of nature is only partially removed in regeneration. And, it shall not be totally removed until after the death of the believer, aka: glorification. However, there is a radical work done in regeneration where the soul is "recreated"; given a propensity to righteousness and holiness and true knowledge, (Eph 4:24; Col 3:10). And this new man desires to be conformed to the image of Christ; to be perfectly holy. (Matt 5:48; Lk 1:74, 75; Jh 15:16; Rom 8:28, 29; Eph 1:4; 2:10; 1Thess 4:7; 2Tim 2:19; 1Pet 1:15, 16; 2Pet 1:5-11; et al).

Since Christ, to be holy and perfect before God to accomplish redemption for His people, had to do all that the law required, can it possibly be that those who are to follow Him as their example do otherwise? Is there some other standard by which "holiness" and/or "righteousness" are to be found other than the very same moral law which He kept, that men are to keep? Or, even more unlikely, can it be that believers are not bound by any law (lawlessness) when the Scripture everywhere condemns all those who transgress the law, even those who profess to believe in Christ? (see Rom 6)

Further, it is crystal clear that all who profess to believe on Christ; to be His disciples are to "keep His commandments" (Jh 14:15; 15:10; Lk 6:46). And the Apostle John says that believers are to "keep God's commandments". In fact they are to find them pleasing to do and not a burden. (1Jh 2:3, 4; 3:22, 24; 5:2, 3; Rev 22:14)

The Moral Law defines what holiness and righeousness is. They are the road map that guides a believer to do that which is pleasing in God's sight, which is his main desire. The doing of that law is done out of a heart of love for God. Love is the motive, Law is the duty, or substance of love expressed.

Depending upon how you define those terms, they can mean the same thing or something totally different. Antinomians use the term "Neonomian" to designate anyone who believes that believers have anything to do with the law; thus a strawman term meant to justify their own heresy.

Hebrews 12:14 "Follow peace with all [men], and holiness, without which no man shall see the Lord:"

In His Grace,