Originally Posted by MikeL
Knowing and decreeing are just different things, by definition.

If we have free will, then God knowing that we will choose to sin is not the same thing as God causing us to sin.
1. Knowing and decreeing are different things... agreed.

2. Again, God has never caused anyone to sin. That would make God the author of sin; a pernicious and damnable heresy which we all categorically deny.

Originally Posted by MikeL
God foreordains because he foreknows. For example, he can give special blessings to believers based on his foreknowledge of their decisions to accept Christ.

But I think Calvinism teaches that God foreknows, because he has foreordained everything. So the two are conflated.
1. IF God foreordains because He foreknows, where did this foreknowledge originate? (more after you answer)

2. Correct, God foreknows because He has foreordained.

3. Scriptural support along with your answer to #1 please. grin

Originally Posted by MikeL
"For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers." Romans 8:29

To me this says foreknowledge and predestination are not the same thing. It also says that one follows another: predestination is based on God's foreknowledge. If God foreordained everything, then foreknowledge would actually make no sense: God foreknew what he had already predestined?
CONTEXT, context, context... why ignore verse 28 which precedes verse 29 and is the origination of the foreknowledge.

Secondly, "foreknowledge" as found in Romans 8:29 is to be defined as "fore-loved", a concept and truth I have afore shown to be true from Scripture.

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simul iustus et peccator

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